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Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> hc.varma,wrk,pvr,energy -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]

54. From the figure, cos $ = AC/AB

implies AC = AB cos $ implies (0.5) × (0.8) = 0.4.

So, CD = (0.5) – (0.4) = (0.1) m

Energy at D = energy at B

1/2 mv2 = mg (CD)

v2 = 2 × 10 × (0.1) = 2

So, the tension is given by,

T = mv2/r + mg = 0.1*(2/0.5 + 10) = 1.4 N

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> hc.varma,wrk,pvr,energy -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]

53. a) Let the velocity at B be v2

1/2 mv12 = 1/2 mv22 + mgL

implies 1/2 m (10 gL) = 1/2 mv22 + mgL

V22=8gL

So, the tension in the string at horizontal position T=MV2/R = 8mgL/L = 8mg   (B) Let the velocity at C be V3   1/2 mv12 = 1/2 mv32 + mg(2L)  implies  1/2m(10*g*L) = 1/2 mv32 + mg(2L)  implies V32 = 6mgL .So, the tension in the string is given by Tc = mv2/L - mg = 6gLm/L * mg = 5mg  (C) Let the velocity at point D be v4 1/2 mv12 = 1/2 mv42 + mgh  1/2 * m * (10 gL) = 1.2 mv42 + mgL (1 + cos 60°) impliesV42 = 7gL  So, the tension in the string is T = (mv2/L) – mg cos 60°  implies  m*7gL/L– l – 0.5 mg   implies 7 mg – 0.5 mg = 6.5 mg.



Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> IE -> Go to message
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Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> HCV....mechanical properties of matter...... -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]
it came when Yst/Ycu
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> HCV part 1 , page 115 , ques 17 and 18 . -> Go to message
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done with calculator
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> HCV part 1 , page 115 , ques 17 and 18 . -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]

18) Given, v = 36km/hr = 10m/s, r = 20m, (nu) = 0.4 , road is banked with an angle$=tan-1(v2/rg) = tan-1(100/20*10) = tan$= 0.5  When the car travels at max. speed so that it slips upward, (nu)R1 acts downward So, R1 – mg cos$ –mv12sin$/r = 0 ....(1)   And (nu)R1 + mg sin$ –mv12cos$/r = 0  ...(2)  Solving  the  equations ,V1 =[root rg*tan$ – (nu)/1+(nu)tan$]  = root[20*10*(0.1/0.2)] = 4.08 m/s = 14.7 km/hr  So, the possible speeds are between 14.7 km/hr and 54km/hr.

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> HCV part 1 , page 115 , ques 17 and 18 . -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]

17) a) Net force on the spring balance.

R = mg – mw2r                  (w=omega)

So, fraction less than the true weight (3mg) is  mg - (mg - mw2r)/mg = w2/g implies [(2pi/24*3600)]2 * [6400*103]/10 =3.5 * 10–3  (b)  When the balance reading is half the true weight, mg - (mg - mw2r)/mg=1/2 therfore w =(rootg/2r) = root(10/2*6400*103) rad/sec  therefore duration of day is T=2pi/w  implies 2pi*(root2*6400*103/9.8) sec implies 2pi*8000/7*3600 hr which is equal to 2hrs.

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> HCV....mechanical properties of matter...... -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]

6 (a)  Stress in lower rod= T1/A1 implies m1g+wg/A1 implies W = 14kg Stress in upper rod =T2/A2 implies m2g+m1g+wg/A2 implies W = 18kg . For same stress, the max load that can be put is 14 kg. If the load is increased the lower wire will break first.

b) T1/A1 implies m1g+wg/A1 = 8 * 108 implies W =14 kg and T2/A2 implies m2g+m1g+wg/A2 = 8 * 108 implies W =2kg. The maximum load that can be put is 2 kg. Upper wire will break first if load is increased.?

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> HCV....mechanical properties of matter...... -> Go to message
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5) [(delta L)/L)]st = F/AYst and [(delta L)/L)]cu =  F/AYcu , strain in steel wire/strain in copper wire =  (F/AYst)* AYcu/F as Acu =Ast  therefore  Ycu/Yst implies 1.3*1011/2*1011  =0.65 

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> arre koi help karo -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]

12) From the free body diagram

(nu)1 R + 1 – 16 = 0

implies (nu)1 (2g) –15 = 0

 (nu)1 = 15/20 = 0.75

 (nu)2 R1 + 4 × 0.5 + 16 – 4g sin 30° = 0

 (nu)2 [20 (root3)] + 2 + 16 – 20 = 0 (nu)2=0.06 therfore Co-efficient of friction (nu)1 = 0.75 & (nu)2 = 0.06 From the free body diagram T + 15a – 15g = 0 implies T = 15g – 15 a ...(i)    T-(T1 + 5a+ (nu)R)= 0 implies T = 5g + 10a + (nu)R …(ii)? implies T1=5g + 5a …(iii) , From (i) & (ii) 15g – 15a = 5g + 10a + 0.2 (5g) implies a= 3.6m/s2  Equation (ii)implies T = 5 *10 + 10 * 3.6 + 0.2 * 5 * 10

implies 96N in the left string

Equation (iii) T1 = 5g + 5a = 5 × 10 + 5 × 3.6 =68N in the right string

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> arre koi help karo -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]

11) From the free body diagram

T + 0.5a – 0.5 g = 0 ...(1)

(nu)R + a + T1 – T = 0 ...(2)

(nu)R + a – T1 = 0

(nu)R + a = T1 ...(3)

From (2) & (3) implies (nu)R + a = T – T1

therefore T – T1 = T1

implies T = 2T1

Equation (2) becomes (nu)R + a + T1 – 2T1 = 0

implies (nu)R + a – T1 = 0

implies T1 = (nu)R + a = 0.2g + a ...(4)

Equation (1) becomes 2T1 + 0/5a – 0.5g = 0 implies T1 = = 0.25g – 0.25a ...(5) From (4) & (5) 0.2g + a = 0.25g – 0.25a implies a =0.4 m/s2 a) Accln of 1kg blocks each is 0.4m/s2

b) Tension T1 = 0.2g + a + 0.4 = 2.4N

c) T = 0.5g – 0.5a = 0.5 × 10 – 0.5 × 0.4 = 4.8N

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> arre koi help karo -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]

28) Let the block m1 moves upward with acceleration a, and the two blocks m2 an m3 have relative

acceleration a2 due to the difference of weight between them. So, the actual acceleration at the blocks

m1, m2 and m3 will be a1.

(a1 – a2) and (a1 + a2) as from f.b.d

T = g – a2 = 0 ...(i)

T/2 – 2g – 2(a1 – a2) = 0 ...(ii)

T/2 – 3g – 3(a1 + a2) = 0 ...(iii)

From eqn (i) and eqn (ii), eliminating T we get, g + a2 = 4g + 4(a1 + a2) implies 5a2 – 4a1 = 3g (iv)

From eqn (ii) and eqn (iii), we get 2g + 2(a1 – a2) = 3g – 3(a1 – a2) implies 5a1 + a2 = (v) Solving (iv) and (v) a1 =2g/29 and a2=g – 5a1implies a2=19g/29 therefore a1 - a2=  -17g/29 , a1+a2=21g/29 ,therfore acceleration of m1, m2, m3 are 19g/29(up) , 17g/29(down) , 21g/29(down) , Again, for m1, u = 0, s= 20cm=0.2m and a2 =19g/29 as s=ut+0.5at2  0.2=0.5*(19/29)gt2  implies t= 0.25 sec

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> arre koi help karo -> Go to message
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go to for 34) http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/mechanics-h-c-v-vol1-pg-82-q-38-37-36-35-34-78518.htm#382914
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> h.c.v vol-1 pg-98 ques -16, 27,28,25,23 -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]

16) Max frictional force = (nu)R

From the free body diagram

R – mg cos$ =0

 R = mg cos$ ...(i)

and (nu)R + ma – mg sin$ ) = 0 …(ii)

implies (nu)mg cos$ + ma – mg sin$ = 0

implies (nu)g cos$ + a – 10 * (1/2) = 0

implies ?a = 5 – {1 – (2 3 )} * 10 ( (root3) / 2) = 2.5 m/s2

S = 12.8m, u = 6m/s

SO, velocity at the end of incline

V = root(u2+? 2as) = root[62 + 2(2*5)(12*8)] = 10m/s = 36km/h

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> h.c.v vol-1 pg-98 ques -16, 27,28,25,23 -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]

25) (a)R1 + ma – mg =0

implies R1 = m(g–a) = mg – ma ...(i)

Again, F – T – (nu) R1 =0 implies F – {(nu)(mg –ma)} – u(mg – ma) = 0

 F – (nu) mg + (nu) ma – (nu) mg + (nu) ma = 0

 F = 2 (nu) mg – 2(nu) ma implies F = 2(nu) m(g–a)

b) Acceleration of the block be a1 therfore R1 = mg – ma ...(i) 2F – T – (nu)R1 – ma1 =0 implies 2F – t – (nu)mg + (nu)a – ma1 = 0 ...(ii) T – (nu)R1 – M a1 = 0? implies T = (nu)(mg – ma) + Ma1 Subtracting values of F & T we have 2(2(nu)m(g – a)) – 2((nu)mg – (nu)ma + Ma1) – (nu)mg + (nu) ma – (nu) a1 = 0 implies a1=2(nu)m(g - a)/M+m

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> h.c.v vol-1 pg-98 ques -16, 27,28,25,23 -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]

27)  Because the block slips on the table, maximum frictional force acts on it.

       From the free body diagram

       R = mg

      therefore F – (nu) R = 0 imp;ies F = (nu)R = (nu) mg

      But the table is at rest. So, frictional force at the legs of the table is not ? R1. Let be

      f, so form the free body diagram.

      fo – (nu) R = 0 implies fo = (nu)R = (nu) mg.

     Total frictional force on table by floor is (nu) mg

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> h.c.v vol-1 pg-98 ques -16, 27,28,25,23 -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]
go to 28) http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/mechanics-h-c-verma-friction-q28-30-31-pls-help-71783.htm
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> h.c.v vol-1 pg-98 ques -16, 27,28,25,23 -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]
go to 23) http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/mechanics-the-block-questions-76028.htm
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Course Material -> there were imp chemistry questions posted , can someone give me the link again. thanks -> Go to message
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go to http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-important-chemistry-questions-for-board-examination-27437.htm
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> h.c.v vol1 pg-82 Q-38,37,36,35,34 -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]

34 a) 5a + T – 5g = 0 implies T = 5g – 5a ...(i) (From FBD)

Again (1/2) – 4g – 8a = 0  implies T = 8g – 16a ...(ii) (from FBD)

From equn (i) and (ii), we get

5g – 5a = 8g + 16a  implies 21a = –3g  implies a = – 1/7g

So, acceleration of 5 kg mass is g/7 upward and that of 4 kg mass

is 2a = 2g/7 (downward).


b)4a – t/2 = 0 implies 8a – T = 0 implies T = 8a … (ii) [From FBD]

Again, T + 5a – 5g = 0 implies 8a + 5a – 5g = 0

implies 13a – 5g = 0 implies a = 5g/13 downward. (from FBD)

Acceleration of mass (A) kg is 2a = 10/13 (g) & 5kg (B) is 5g/13.


c)T + 1a – 1g = 0 implies T = 1g – 1a …(i) [From FBD]

Again,T/2– 2g – 4a = 0 implies T – 4g – 8a = 0 …(ii) [From FBD]

implies1g – 1a – 4g – 8a = 0 [From (i)]implies a = –(g/3) downward.

Acceleration of mass 1kg(b) is g/3 (up)

Acceleration of mass 2kg(A) is 2g/3 (downward)


35) m1 = 100g = 0.1kg

m2 = 500g = 0.5kg

m3 = 50g = 0.05kg.

T + 0.5a – 0.5g = 0 ...(i)

T1 – 0.5a – 0.05g = 0 ...(ii)

T1 + 0.1a – T + 0.05g = 0 ...(iii)

From equn (ii) T1 = 0.05g + 0.05a ...(iv)

From equn (i) T1 = 0.5g – 0.5a ...(v)

Equn (iii) becomes T1 + 0.1a – T + 0.05g = 0

implies 0.05g + 0.05a + 0.1a – 0.5g + 0.5a + 0.05g = 0 [From (iv)

and (v)]implies 0.65a = 0.4g implies a =8/13g downward


37)Suppose the monkey accelerates upward with acceleration ’a’ & the block, accelerate downward with

acceleration a1. Let Force exerted by monkey is equal to ‘T’

From the free body diagram of monkey

therefore T – mg – ma = 0 ...(i)

implies T = mg + ma.

Again, from the FBD of the block,

T = ma1 – mg = 0.

implies mg + ma + ma1 – mg = 0 [From (i)] implies ma = –ma1 implies a = a1.

Acceleration ‘–a’ downward i.e. ‘a’ upward.

TherforeThe block & the monkey move in the same direction with equal acceleration.

If initially they are rest (no force is exertied by monkey) no motion of monkey of block occurs as they

have same weight (same mass). Their separation will not change as time passes


38)Suppose A move upward with acceleration a, such that in the tail of A maximum tension 30N produced T – 5g – 30 -5a = 0 ...(i) 30 – 2g – 2a = 0 ...(ii)

implies T = 50 + 30 +(5 × 5) = 105 N (max) implies 30 – 20 – 2a = 0 implies a = 5 m/s2

So, A can apply a maximum force of 105 N in the rope to carry the monkey B with it.For minimum force there is no acceleration of monkey ‘A’ and B. implies a = 0

Now equation (ii) is T'1 – 2g = 0 implies T'1 = 20 N (wt. of monkey B)

Equation (i) is T – 5g – 20 = 0 [As T'1 = 20 N]

implies T = 5g + 20 = 50 + 20 = 70 N.

therfore the monkey A should apply force between 70 N and 105 N to carry the monkey B with it.

 
 
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