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1 Jan 2010 21:36:02 IST
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1)(x+2)(x+3)dx) 2)If then Prove that  3) 4)Let . Then find the real roots of the equation ?
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bye ppl
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1 Jan 2010 22:01:19 IST
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i m in a hurry so just giving answer to 1st one . int ( -3 to -1 ) (x+1)(x+2)(x+3) dx Transformation x+2 =y =int (-1 to 1 ) (y-1) y (y+1)dy = 0
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The time u guys take to find the derivative of a function or for finding the equilibrium constant of a reaction or for finding the angle of dispersion of prism or for standing from ur seat to congratulate our team after their win almost in that time one kid die because of poverty. |
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1 Jan 2010 22:53:59 IST
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"Give me some sunshine,
Give me some rain,
Give me another chance,
I wanna grow up once again"
n.a.
eragon24. |
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1 Jan 2010 22:56:26 IST
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edited
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"Give me some sunshine,
Give me some rain,
Give me another chance,
I wanna grow up once again"
n.a.
eragon24. |
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2 Jan 2010 18:19:34 IST
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4. Apply lebnitz theorem, So, u will get f'(x) = ( 2 - x2 )1/2 Since, x2 = f'(x) = ( 2 - x2 )1/2 So, x4 = 2 - x2 or, x4 + x2 - 2 = 0 or, x4 + 2x2 - x2 - 2 = 0 or, (x2 - 1) (x2 + 2) = 0 Now since x is real, so x2 = 1 and other value is neglected therefore, x = + 1 which are the required roots
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The best changes often start as a single, simple thought. Think big, and discover the ways to make your dreams real. |
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2 Jan 2010 18:23:14 IST
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3. Try solving integral with the properties of definite integral. U will get (4096)a11/2 / (3465) = (7/8)(pi)a5 Solving it, u get a = ( 33 (35)1/2 ) / 128 Calculation is a bit complicated in this question. I would try it later if it could be solved by some other method.
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The best changes often start as a single, simple thought. Think big, and discover the ways to make your dreams real. |
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3 Jan 2010 01:06:37 IST
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in 3) try putting x =square root of (2a)*sintheta
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even sky is not the limit
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4 Jan 2010 15:37:33 IST
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thank a ton for helping me out.. can u plz post post d complete solution for 3rd one..thnx.. also few more doubts 5)If then find at  6)Prove that  7)Show that  8)
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bye ppl
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4 Jan 2010 18:14:43 IST
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I = integral 0-pi xdx/1+cos^2x .........1eqn I=integral 0-pi (pi-x)dx/1+cos^2(pi-x) = (dx/1+cos^2xpi-x)....2eqn adding 1 and 2 2I = integral 0-pi pidx/1+cos^2x I = pi/2 integral 0-pi dx/1+cos^2x = pi/2(0-pi dx/1+cos^2x +0-pi/2 dx/1+cos^2(pi-x)) =pi integral 0-pi sec^2xdx/ 2+tan^2 x .........put tanx = t = pi integral 0-infinity dt/t^2+2 =pi/root2 tan inverse (t/root2) limits 0- infinity =pi^2/2root2
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the secret of getting ahead is getting started !!!! |
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4 Jan 2010 18:23:43 IST
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5) Differentiate using Newton Leibnitz theorem, f'(x) = 2xcos2x/(1+sin2(x)) f'(pi) = 2(pi) 6) (Not able to post using goiit equation editor so i'll just give you the idea) Let sin(t) = x Then t = sin-1(x) i.e. dt = dx/{1-x2}1/2 Therefore the integral reduces to INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) {log(sint)dt} Let I = INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) log(sint)dt i.e. I = INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) log(cost)dt so 2I = INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) log(sint.cost)dt = INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) log(sin2t/2)dt = INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2)logsin2tdt - INTEGRAL(0 to pi/2)log2dt But , INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) log(sin2t)dt = INTEGRAL (0 to pi)(0.5sinzdz) = I i.e. I = -(pi/2)log(2) 8) Is easy. Use the property INTEGRAL(0 to a) f(x)dx = INTEGRAL (0 to a)f(a-x)dx So the integral reduces to I = INTEGRAL (0 to pi)0.5(pi)dx/{1+cos2x} Now, replace cosx = 1/secx. However this makes the function discontinuous at x=(pi/2) So split the integral as INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) + INTEGRAL (pi/2 to pi) Now replace cosx = 1/secx, put tanx = t and proceed.
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Finally I reveal myself... |
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4 Jan 2010 22:32:53 IST
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the secret of getting ahead is getting started !!!! |
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4 Jan 2010 22:33:28 IST
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the secret of getting ahead is getting started !!!! |
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4 Jan 2010 23:03:29 IST
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I =
(integral property)
2I = cos(x))dx) since 2sinxcosx =sin2x, = 2I
)dx-\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\log(2)dx)
Consider, )dx)
Put 2x = t So you have )dt)
Use property of integrals, )dt +0.5\int_{\pi/2}^{\pi}\ln(\sin(t))dt)
Now you can easily prove that I1 = I hence I = -(pi/2) (log2) =(pi/2)(log(1/2))
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4 Jan 2010 23:36:37 IST
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This obviously follows from , dx/\sqrt{(1-x^2)})
Let  = t) so dt = \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\log\sin(x)dx)
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5 Jan 2010 00:20:09 IST
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dx + \int_{\pi/2}^{\pi}\log\sin(x)dx = \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\log\sin(x)dx + \int_{\pi/2-\pi/2}^{\pi-\pi/2}\log\sin(x+\pi/2)dx)
dx + \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\log\cos(x)dx = \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\log\sin(x)dx + \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\log\sin(x)dx)
dx)
BUT 2\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\log\sin(x)dx)
Hence, dx = I)
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5 Jan 2010 21:24:28 IST
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)\sin(x)dx = I)
INTEGRATE BY PARTS, EVAULATE THE INDEFINITE INTEGRAL FIRST \sin(x)dx = \log\sin(x)\int \sin(x)dx - \int [\frac{\mathrm{d} \log\sin(x)}{\mathrm{d} x}\int \sin(x)dx]dx)
\cos(x) + \int [\cos^2(x)/\sin(x)]dx)
\cos(x) + \int [\csc(x) - \sin(x)]dx)
\cos(x) + \int \csc(x)dx - \int\sin(x)dx)
(TYPO HERE, IGNORE 'dx')
NOW APPLY THE LIMITS, .........(1)
NOW FOR THE LOWER LIMIT, AS THE LOG FUNCTIONS BECOME INFINITE AT X=0, WE HAVE TO CONSIDER THE LIMITING VALUE SO, LOWER LIMIT /\sin^{\cos(x)}(x)) + \cos(0))
/\(\sin^{\cos(x)}(x)))+ \cos(0))
CONSIDER /\(\sin^{\cos(x)}(x)))
EVALUATE THIS LIMIT BY L'HOSPITAL RULE, /\(\sin^{\cos(x)}(x)) =-\log(2))
SO THE LOWER LIMIT BECOMES ................(2)
NOW , -(2) = -\log(e/2) = \log(2/e))
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5 Jan 2010 21:28:18 IST
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denotes logarithm to the base "e".
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6 Jan 2010 16:25:37 IST
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Impossible becomes possible only if u r awesome :) |
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6 Jan 2010 16:34:31 IST
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The third question will give rise to a hypergeometric function........ so dont worry for that one...
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Impossible becomes possible only if u r awesome :) |
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6 Jan 2010 18:52:45 IST
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For the question 7, I got a much simpler method. Put cosx = t , you have,
Integrate by parts, Take 1 as the function u, and the log term as function v, 
(differentiation is with respect to "t" and not x )  )
(theres a typo here, The signs are interchanged within the log term it's actually sqrt(1+t/1-t)) So  + t\log(\sqrt{1+t})+t\log(\sqrt{1-t})) \log(\sqrt{1+t})+(t-1)\log(\sqrt{1-t})) Limits from 0 to 1, (This is a form converted into 0/0. Evaluate using L'Hospital Rule) You will see that this value comes out to be zero Hence the upper limit value comes out to be \log(\sqrt{1+1})+ \lim_{x\to 1}(t-1)\log(\sqrt{1-t}) = -1 + 2\log(\sqrt{2}) + 0) Lower limit t=0 = 0 Hence the value of the integral \log\sin(x)dx = \int_{0}^{1}\log(\sqrt{1-t^2})dt = \log(2/e))
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